I'm off by the answer, what I did was that I switched x and y, took the derivative, plugged in one, found the f(x) value at x = 1, and solved for f'(x). It hasn't gotten me the right answer, but it seemed like the obvious thing to do. What am I missing? THank you!
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If f(x) = arctan x, then f^-1 (x) = tan x.
d/dx f^-1 (x) = sec^2 x
If f(x) = arctan x = 1, then x = π/4.
sec^2 π/4 = 2
d/dx f^-1 (x) = sec^2 x
If f(x) = arctan x = 1, then x = π/4.
sec^2 π/4 = 2