Calculus help please? :)
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Calculus help please? :)

[From: ] [author: ] [Date: 11-05-14] [Hit: ]
area = sum [i = 0,= sum [i = 0,Can you finish it?By the way, please see my comments on the other problem you asked today.-You must write the formula.......
Use Riemann sums and limits to compute the area bounded by
f(x)=15 x^3 + 6 x
and the x axis between x=2 to x =8

Thank you!!

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dx = (6/n)
x(i) = 2+(6/n)i
i = 0, n-->inf
area = sum [i = 0, n] f(x(i)) dx
= sum [i = 0, n] [15(2+(6/n)i)^3 + 6(2+(6/n)i)]

Can you finish it?


By the way, please see my comments on the other problem you asked today.

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You must write the formula. Sorry if my notation looks odd. Yahoo Answers has its limitations. Know your power sums

S = ∑(i = 1 to n):f(xi)∆x
∆x = (8 - 2)/n = 6/n
xi = 2 + i∆x

S = ∑(i = 1 to n):f(2 + 6i/n)6/n
S = ∑(i = 1 to n):[15(2 + 6i/n)^3 + 6(2 + 6i/n)]6/n
S = ∑(i = 1 to n):[10(1 + 3i/n)^3 + (1 + 3i/n)]72/n
S = ∑(i = 1 to n):[10(1 + 3(3i/n) + 3(3i/n)^2 + (3i/n)^3) + (1 + 3i/n)]72/n
S = ∑(i = 1 to n):(11 + 93i/n + 270i^2/n^2 + 270i^3/n^3)72/n
S = ∑(i = 1 to n):792/n + 6696i/n^2 + 19440i^2/n^3 + 19440i^3/n^4
S = ∑(i = 1 to n):792/n + ∑(i = 1 to n):6696i/n^2 + ∑(i = 1 to n):(19440i^2/n^3 + 19440i^3/n^4)
S = 792 + 6696[n(n + 1)/2]/n^2 + 19440∑(i = 1 to n):(i^2/n^3 + i^3/n^4)
S = 792 + 3348(n^2 + n)/n^2 + 19440∑(i = 1 to n):i^2/n^3 + 19440∑(i = 1 to n):i^3/n^4
S = 792 + 3348 + 3348/n + 19440n(n + 1)(2n + 1)/(6n^3) + 19440[n(n + 1)/2]^2/n^4
S = 4140 + 3348/n + 19440(2n^3 + 3n^2 + n)/(6n^3) + 19440(n^4 + 2n^3 + n^2)/(4n^4)
S = 4140 + 3348/n + 19440(2/6 + 3/(6n) + 1/(6n^2)) + 19440(1/4 + 2/(4n) + 1/(4n^2))
S = 4140 + 3348/n + 19440/3 + 19440/(2n) + 19440/(6n^2) + 19440/4 + 19440/(2n) + 19440/(4n^2)
S = 15480 + 22788/n + 8100/n^2

As n approaches infinity,
S = 15480

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Each differential element has width delta-x and height f(x*i)

x*i is = a + i*delta-x
Because as i, which is an integer, increases, i*delta-x increases by delta-x amount.

Summing all the differential elements together you get:

delta-x [Sum from i to n of f(x*i)]

delta-x = (b - a)/n

Take the limit of n to infinity, delta-x will become infinitesimally small... turning into dx.
Then you will have an integral from a to b of f(x)dx
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