Question regarding an integral that does not converge and and why the same one does! Please help!!!
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Question regarding an integral that does not converge and and why the same one does! Please help!!!

[From: ] [author: ] [Date: 11-10-07] [Hit: ]
-Matt is correct that the integral is:tan^-1(x) + (1/2)ln(1 + x²)This converges, if you take the difference of the two limits:lim {tan^-1(x) + (1/2)ln(1 + x²)}x→+∞- lim {tan^-1(x) + (1/2)ln(1 + x²)}x→-∞This becomes:lim tan^-1(x)x→+∞+(1/2)ln(1 + x²)x→+∞- lim tan^-1(x) + x→-∞- lim (1/2)ln(1 + x²)x→-∞The limit for the inverse tangent is clearly defined:lim tan^-1(x) = π/2x→+∞lim tan^-1(x) = - π/2x→-∞Subtract the two and you get:πThe limit for the natural log is not defined but, because x is squared in (1/2)ln(1 + x²), the limit is the same as x approaches either positive or negative infinity. Therefore,their difference results in 0.......

Once you plug in the limits from 0 to infinity, you do see that the integral diverges.

Not to sure how to prove the Cauchy Principle though.

-
Matt is correct that the integral is:

tan^-1(x) + (1/2)ln(1 + x²)

This converges, if you take the difference of the two limits:

lim {tan^-1(x) + (1/2)ln(1 + x²)}
x→+∞

- lim {tan^-1(x) + (1/2)ln(1 + x²)}
x→-∞

This becomes:


lim tan^-1(x)
x→+∞

+(1/2)ln(1 + x²)
x→+∞

- lim tan^-1(x) +
x→-∞

- lim (1/2)ln(1 + x²)
x→-∞

The limit for the inverse tangent is clearly defined:

lim tan^-1(x) = π/2
x→+∞

lim tan^-1(x) = - π/2
x→-∞

Subtract the two and you get:

π

The limit for the natural log is not defined but, because x is squared in (1/2)ln(1 + x²), the limit is the same as x approaches either positive or negative infinity. Therefore, their difference results in 0.
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