If a point on the second derivative doesn't exist, does that mean there's an inflection point or what? Explanation please!!
-
No, the second derivative being zero or not in existence at a point doesn't make it an inflection point. First determine the concavity on both sides of the point.
It will only be an inflection point if the concavity is different on both sides of the point.
It will only be an inflection point if the concavity is different on both sides of the point.