let's say y=inv sin(x)
when we implicitly differentiate both sides we can come to the conclusion that dy/dx=1/cos(y)
so why is the "formal" derivative of the inverse sine equal to 1/sqrt(1-x^2) ?
how is cos(y) related to sqrt(1-x^2) ?
It's just one of the things that bothers me in my learning of calculus. My teachers and professors just told me to memorize it.
when we implicitly differentiate both sides we can come to the conclusion that dy/dx=1/cos(y)
so why is the "formal" derivative of the inverse sine equal to 1/sqrt(1-x^2) ?
how is cos(y) related to sqrt(1-x^2) ?
It's just one of the things that bothers me in my learning of calculus. My teachers and professors just told me to memorize it.
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http://www.themathpage.com/acalc/inverse…