Is 1 - sin(x) = cos(x)
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Is 1 - sin(x) = cos(x)

[From: ] [author: ] [Date: 11-12-27] [Hit: ]
pi/2-Hell no! 1 – sin²x = cos²x.......
Nope, because if x is for example superior to Pi/2, let's say it equals Pi, then:
cos(x) = -1
sin(x)=0

So no, it doesn't work.

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No.

Edit: 1 - sin^2(x) = cos^2(x)

1 - sin(x) = cos(x) => for x = 0 , pi/2

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Edit: 1 - sin^2(x) = cos^2(x)

1 - sin(x) = cos(x) => for x = 0 , pi/2

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Hell no! 1 – sin²x = cos²x. We would have no use for both functions if the relationship were so simple

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No it's not
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